BUS 335 Week 7 Quiz– Strayer
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Chapter
8 and 9
Student:
___________________________________________________________________________
1. External
selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job
applicants.
True False
2. Cost
should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods.
True False
3. Job
analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common
than would be expected by relying just on job
titles.
True False
4. The
logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made
between requirements of the job to be filled and the qualifications of the job
applicants.
True False
5. A
power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the
job.
True False
6. The
first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated
with a job.
True False
7. The
process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to
be used for selection is known as a discriminant validity
study.
True False
8. Organizations
are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh
the benefits.
True False
9. A
finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer, but who possesses the
minimum qualifications to be considered for further assessment.
True False
10. Contingent
methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications, such as
the offer receiver passing a medical exam or a drug
test.
True False
11. Within
the context of the selection process, the "logic of prediction" means
that:
A. indicators of an applicant's future performance are
predictive of likely job performance
B. indicators of a person's degree of
success in past situations should be predictive of future job success
C. predictors
of job performance are correlated with KSAOs
D. indicators of job outcomes
can be used to predict job performance
12. Which
of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice
for selecting employees?
A. the organization has adopted a thorough
competency modeling approach
B. qualifications carry over from one job to
another
C. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique
experiences
D. anonymous periodic reviews of applicant files to ensure
accuracy
13. If
the correctness of a response is essential for a job, then a(n) ________ test
should be
used.
A. essay
B. speed
C. power
D. objective
14. Essay
tests are best used to assess ___________ skills.
A. oral
communication
B. written communication
C. interpersonal
D. none
of the above
15. The
most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is
______________.
A. a selection plan determines the means for
attracting qualified job applicants
B. a selection plan matches applicants
to outcome criteria
C. a selection plan describes predictors to be used to
assess KSAOs required to perform the job
D. a selection plan consists of
interview rating criteria
16. The
strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called
________.
A. reliability
B. validity
C. utility
D. instrumentality
17. Most
initial assessment methods have _________ validity.
A. moderate to
low
B. high to very high
C. moderately high to high
D. moderate
18. Which
of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false?
A. The
list of KSAOs used in the selection plan are derived from the job requirements
matrix
B. The process of developing a selection plan is usually
straightforward and can be done quickly
C. One reason KSAOs may be deemed
unimportant for selection is because they will be learned on the
job
D. Possible methods for assessing every identified job-relevant KSAO
need to be developed
19. A
major problem with resumes and cover letters is
lying.
True False
20. Although
employers can outsource résumé collection to résumé-tracking services, in
practice this type of outsourcing is too inefficient to be worth the
cost.
True False
21. Résumé
scanning software tends to look for nouns more than action
verbs.
True False
22. Video
résumés have become a major component of selection in most large
organizations.
True False
23. To
protect an employer from charges of unfair discrimination, it is best to only
include information related to KSAOs demonstrated as important to the job on an
application blank.
True False
24. Research
has found that level of education is moderately related to job
performance.
True False
25. College
grades are more valid predictors of job performance than high school
grades.
True False
26. Research
suggests that the quality of the school a person graduates from makes a
difference in the labor market.
True False
27. Occupational
certifications are nearly all regulated by the Department of Labor to ensure
that they accurately reflect job
knowledge.
True False
28. Occupational
certification helps guard against the misuse of job titles in human resource
selection.
True False
29. Scored
evaluations of unweighted application blanks are good predictors of job
performance.
True False
30. The
validity evidence for weighted application blanks is better than that for
unweighted application blanks.
True False
31. Most
organizations use only weighted application blanks for initial screening
decisions.
True False
32. The
principal assumption behind the use of biodata in selection processes is the
axiom, "the best predictor of future behavior is past
behavior."
True False
33. Biodata
refers to medical or physiological tests of applicants prior to hiring.
True False
34. Biodata
is like a background check in many ways, but background checks tend to focus on
external references rather than applicant
surveys.
True False
35. Biodata
items are generally the same, regardless of the job being staffed.
True False
36. Research
suggests that biodata does not provide incremental validity over personality
and cognitive ability.
True False
37. Research
on the reliability and validity of biodata has been quite
positive.
True False
38. Biographical
information tends to have low
reliability.
True False
39. Research
shows that applicants have a favorable attitude toward biodata
inventories.
True False
40. Letters
of recommendation are an excellent way to help organizations separate highly
qualified from moderately qualified
applicants.
True False
41. One
study that showed there was a stronger correlation between two letters written
by one person for two different applicants than between two different people
writing letters for the same person.
True False
42. The
most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's
former colleagues who worked in the same
position.
True False
43. Many
organizations are reluctant to give out detailed reference information
regarding their former employees because they are afraid of being
sued.
True False
44. Surveys
suggest that only 3 out of 10 organizations conduct reference
checks.
True False
45. The
proportion of organizations that conduct pre-hire background checks to
determine if employees have criminal records or inaccurate reporting on
résumés, has risen dramatically in recent
years.
True False
46. Genetic
screening is becoming a valuable component of many organizations' selection systems.
True False
47. The
purpose of the initial interview is to screen out the most obvious cases of
person/job mismatches.
True False
48. The
initial interview is the least expensive method of initial
assessment.
True False
49. Initial
interviews can be made more useful by asking the same questions of all job
applicants.
True False
50. Most
initial assessment methods have moderate to low
validity.
True False
51. The
most frequently used methods of initial assessment are education level,
training and experience, reference checks, and initial
interview.
True False
52. Level
of education requirements have little adverse impact against minority
applicants.
True False
53. Which
of the following is(are) initial assessment methods?
A. Résumés and
cover letters
B. Application blanks
C. Biographical
information
D. All of the above
54. Which
of the following are common sources of résumé fraud?
A. inflated
titles
B. inflated education or "purchased"
degrees
C. inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or
unemployment
D. all of the above
55. Which
of the following statements regarding résumés is true?
A. Even
background checks cannot reduce the problem of résumé fraud
B. Most
surveys suggest that around half of all résumés have substantial inaccuracies
or distortions
C. Video résumés are highly respected by most
employers
D. Extensive evidence suggests that résumés are highly accurate
predictors of employee job performance
56. In
using educational level as an initial selection criterion, which of the
following statements is false?
A. The degree received from an
institution is not sufficient as a sole indicator of an applicant's level of
education.
B. A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as
good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job
performance.
C. Educational level is a predictor of job
performance.
D. High-level degrees from non-accredited schools may be
indicators of lesser accomplishment than lower-level degrees from accredited
schools.
57. Which
of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a
predictor is true?
A. GPA may be influenced by many factors in
addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation.
B. GPAs in one's major
tend to be highly similar to one's GPAs in other classes.
C. Grades do not
vary widely by field.
D. GPAs from different schools mean the same thing.
58. When
considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance
predictor, one should _________.
A. use extracurricular activities
whenever possible
B. de-emphasize the use of extracurricular
activities
C. use extracurricular activities mainly for selection of
managerial personnel
D. use extracurricular activities when they correlate
with KSAOs required by the job
59. Asking
applicants to complete a supplemental application in which they describe their
most significant accomplishments relative to a list of job behaviors is known
as the _______.
A. behavioral consistency
method
B. experiential summary method
C. biodata
approach
D. none of the above
60. The
highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as
predictors of job performance are
_________.
A. 1.00
B. .80
C. .20
D. .60
E. .40
61. Research
on application blanks has suggested that the most common questions that are
misinterpreted include _________.
A. previous
employers
B. reasons for leaving previous jobs
C. previous positions
held
D. all of the above are true
62. The
principal assumption behind the use of biodata is the axiom,
________.
A. The best predictor of future behavior is motivation
level
B. The best predictor of future behavior is KSAOs
C. The best
predictor of future behavior is education level
D. The best predictor of
future behavior is past behavior
63. Which
of the following is true regarding biodata and background
tests?
A. Background information is obtained through interviews and
conversations with references.
B. They are two different names for the
same thing.
C. Only background tests look into an applicant's
past.
D. Biodata is used primarily when screening applicants for positions
in which integrity and emotional adjustment are necessary.
64. Biographical
information is like application blanks, except
_______.
A. biographical information is based on history, but
application blanks are based on current events
B. application blanks are
more likely to be used for substantive selection decisions
C. biographical
data is more likely to be accepted by applicants
D. biographical data can
be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions
65. Which
of the following is a criterion on which biodata items can be
classified?
A. historical vs. nonverifiable
B. invasive vs.
firsthand
C. objective vs. subjective
D. equal access vs. easy access
66. The
problem with using _____ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants
cannot obtain these, and the format is
unstandardized.
A. certifications
B. biodata
forms
C. letters of recommendation
D. MBAs
67. The
information collected for an accomplishments record includes
______.
A. a written statement of the accomplishment
B. when
the accomplishment took place
C. any recognition for the
accomplishment
D. all of the above
68. Which
of the following methods is the most valid predictor of
performance?
A. Initial interviews
B. Handwriting
analysis
C. Biodata
D. Unweighted application blanks
69. Research
has indicated that job applicants generally have a __________ view of biodata
inventories.
A. very
positive
B. negative
C. positive
D. neutral
70. One
major problem with letters of recommendation is that they
_________.
A. are too lengthy to be useful
B. are not
structured or standardized
C. are too ambiguous to interpret
D. all
of the above are correct
71. The
most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's
__________.
A. former coworkers
B. HR department at his/her
former employer
C. former supervisor
D. friends
72. Background
testing is concerned with the __________ of an
applicant.
A. integrity
B. reliability
C. personal
adjustments
D. all of the above
73. One
of the major disadvantages of using handwriting analysis as an assessment
method is that it is ______.
A. expensive
B. not related to job
performance
C. easy to fake
D. inefficient
74. Which
of the following is true regarding genetic screening?
A. It helps to
screen out people who will perform poorly on the job.
B. It is used widely
by companies in the U.S.
C. It helps to screen out people who are
susceptible to certain diseases.
D. A recent court decision has ruled that
it is allowable under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
75. One
guideline for improving the effectiveness of initial interviews is to
____.
A. ask questions which assess the most basic
KSAOs
B. make them long and rigorous
C. ask each applicant different
questions
D. A and B are correct
76. The
issue of consistency of measurement with assessment methods is called
______.
A. validity
B. reliability
C. variability
D. central
tendency
77. An
example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is
________.
A. biographical information
B. initial
interviews
C. application blanks
D. resumes
78. _________
refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protected-class
members may be rejected using this predictor.
A. Low
reliability
B. Adverse impact
C. Utility
D. Habeas corpus
79. Disclaimers
are used as a means of protecting employer
rights.
True False
80. Employers
are advised to let applicants know in advance that they reserve the right to
not hire, terminate, or discipline prospective employee for providing false
information during the selection
process.
True False
81. Failure
to conduct a reference check opens an organization to the possibility of a
negligent hiring suit.
True False
82. The
laws in most states provide employers with little protection if they provide
any information in a reference check that might damage an applicant's chances
of getting a job.
True False
83. Although
arrest information may be gathered in the process of doing a background check,
it cannot be used in staffing
decisions.
True False
84. It
is illegal to use pre-employment inquiry information that has a disparate
impact on the basis of a protected characteristic, unless such disparate impact
can be shown to be job-related and consistent with business
necessity.
True False
85. Bona
fide occupational qualifications are not of relevance to the initial assessment
phase.
True False
86. Bona
fide occupational qualification claims made on the basis of customer
preferences are typically upheld by the
courts.
True False
87. Adverse
impact refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protect
class members may be rejected using a given
predictor.
True False
88. The
Americans with Disabilities Act states that employers may not ask
disability-related questions and may not conduct medical examinations until
after it makes a conditional job offer to a
person.
True False
89. Title
VII of the Civil Rights Act explicitly permits discrimination on the basis of
sex, religion, or national origin if it can be shown to be a bona fide
occupational qualification.
True False
90. The
burden of proof is on employers to defend BFOQ
claims.
True False
91. A
statement that identifies the rights than an employer wishes to maintain for
itself that often accompanies initial employment assessments is called a
____.
A. providential
statement
B. disclaimer
C. waiver
D. requisition
92. Examples
of initial assessment methods that have moderate degrees of adverse impact
against women and/or minorities include ______.
A. education
level
B. quality of school
C. training and experience
D. all of
the above are correct
93. Employers
protect themselves in the initial stages of contact with job applicants through
the use of _______.
A. labor contracts
B. employment
clauses
C. disclaimers
D. discharge policies
94. Which
of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries
(PI)?
A. They have little potential for being used for discriminatory
purposes in the assessment process.
B. Organizations rarely make
inappropriate and illegal PIs.
C. It is critical for employers to
understand the laws and regulations regarding PIs.
D. The emphasis in PIs
is on the illegal collection of information.
95. Which
of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check
information for employment purposes?
A. Americans with Disadvantaged
Access Act
B. Fair Credit Reporting Act
C. Personnel Reporting Statue
of 1977
D. National Labor Rights Act
96. According
to ADA, it is not permissible for employers to do which of the following at the
pre-offer stage of assessment process?
A. Ask if the applicant has
any disabilities.
B. Ask the applicant if he/she can perform the job, with
or without reasonable accommodation.
C. Ask the applicant to demonstrate
how they could perform the job.
D. None of the above are permissible.
97. Which
of the following is a typical justification of a BFOQ involving sex that
employers use?
A. One sex has an inability to perform the
work.
B. Personal contact with others requires same sex.
C. Customers
have a preference for dealing with one sex.
D. All of the above are
potential justifications.
Chapter
9
Student:
___________________________________________________________________________
1. Substantive
assessment methods are used to reduce the applicant pool to
candidates.
True False
2. Personality
tests and ability tests are examples of substantive assessment
methods.
True False
3. Discretionary
assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a
job.
True False
4. Contingent
assessment methods are used to make sure that tentative job offer recipients
meet certain qualifications for the
job.
True False
5. Currently,
personality tests are viewed as having no validity whatsoever as selection
methods.
True False
6. The
Big Five personality test is used to describe emotional and cognitive traits
that capture 20% of an individual's
personality.
True False
7. The
traits measured by Big Five personality tests are measures of factors brought
about entirely by life environments, and not by
genetics.
True False
8. Surveys
are the most common means of assessing
personality.
True False
9. Conscientiousness
is a trait that is associated with better job performance, higher job
satisfaction, better leadership performance, and higher
retention.
True False
10. Extraversion
is associated with higher levels of creativity and adaptability.
True False
11. Individuals
who have higher levels of agreeableness tend to have lower levels of career
success and are less able to cope with
conflicts.
True False
12. There
is little controversy over the use of personality measures in personnel
selection.
True False
13. Evidence
suggests that faking or enhancement almost never occurs on personality
tests.
True False
14. Socially
desirable responding, or presenting oneself in a favorable light, doesn't end
once someone takes a job.
True False
15. Evidence
suggests that most applicants have relatively positive reactions towards
personality testing.
True False
16. The
two major types of ability tests are aptitude and
achievement.
True False
17. 80%
of organizations use some sort of ability test in selection
decisions.
True False
18. Measures
of specific cognitive abilities do not reflect general
intelligence.
True False
19. The
Wonderlic Personnel test is prohibitively expensive for most organizations,
because it requires long face-to-face sessions with a trained
psychologist.
True False
20. Validities
for cognitive ability tests appear to be culturally specific, with far lower
validities in the European Union relative to the United States.
True False
21. Cognitive
ability tests are excellent predictors for executive and professional jobs, but
they are of no value for entry level, clerical, or blue collar
jobs.
True False
22. The
true validity of measures of general cognitive ability is roughly
.50.
True False
23. The
biggest reason cognitive tests are not widely used in selection is the
difficulty associated with their
administration.
True False
24. A
concern regarding the use of cognitive ability tests is adverse impact against
African Americans.
True False
25. Most
experts agree that cognitive ability cannot be measured accurately by
standardized tests.
True False
26. Physical
ability tests are becoming increasingly common to screen out individuals susceptible
to repetitive stress injuries, such as carpal tunnel
syndrome.
True False
27. Sensory/perceptual
abilities tests assess the ability to detect and recognize environmental
stimuli.
True False
28. Research
suggests that job knowledge tests have relatively poor validity in predicting
job performance.
True False
29. Individuals
who have high emotional intelligence are self-aware (good at recognizing their
own emotions), other aware (good at recognizing others' emotions), and good at
making use of or managing this
aware-ness.
True False
30. Some
critics argue that because emotional intelligence (EI) is so closely related to
intelligence and personality, once you control for these factors, EI has
nothing unique to offer.
True False
31. Measures
of emotional intelligence are a valuable supplement to personality tests in a
selection context, because they have little similarity to
personality.
True False
32. Performance
tests and work samples assess applicants' underlying capacities and
dispositions.
True False
33. A
low-fidelity test uses realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate the actual
tasks of the job.
True False
34. Performance
tests and work samples are readily accepted by applicants as job
relevant.
True False
35. Performance
tests are a useful indicator of some job skills, but they need to be
supplemented with other predictors because they do not have high content
validity.
True False
36. The
major distinction between job knowledge and situational judgment tests is that
the former deals with future hypothetical job situations, and the latter
explicitly taps the content of the job.
True False
37. Integrity
tests are paper-and-pencil or computerized tests that attempt to assess an applicant's
honesty and moral character.
True False
38. Interviewer
evaluations of applicant integrity are usually very good, and experts like
judges and psychologists can detect lying most of the
time.
True False
39. The
construct of "integrity" is well
understood.
True False
40. Although
applicants probably do sometimes fake their answers on integrity tests, the
evidence suggests that such faking does not completely eliminate the validity
of these tests in predicting job performance and deviant workplace
behavior.
True False
41. The
Meyers-Briggs Type Inventory (MBTI) is an example of an interest
inventory.
True False
42. Interest
inventories play a key role in organizational selection
decisions.
True False
43. Interest
inventories tend to be more tied to the occupation, rather than the
organization or the job.
True False
44. A
typical unstructured interview often contains highly speculative
questions.
True False
45. Applicant
appearance may be a source of error or bias in an unstructured
interview.
True False
46. The
starting point for the structured interview is the job rewards
matrix.
True False
47. Situational
interviews assess an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would
be in the future.
True False
48. Research
has found that structured interviews do not add validity in predicting job
performance beyond cognitive ability
tests.
True False
49. The
interview is the central means through which an applicant can learn about the
job and organization.
True False
50. Applicants
tend to react very negatively to the
interview.
True False
51. When
developing structured interviews, one or more questions must be constructed for
each KSAO targeted for assessment by the structured
interview.
True False
52. ________
assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a
job.
A. Initial
B. Substantive
C. Discretionary
D. Contingent
53. Which
of the following is not one of the five-factor model personality traits
__________.
A. Conscientiousness
B. Extroversion
C. General
mental ability
D. Neuroticism
54. Which
of the following is true regarding the Big Five personality
factors?
A. They are reasonably valid in predicting job
performance.
B. They represent emotional traits.
C. They represent
cognitive abilities.
D. None of the above.
55. This
personality trait is associated with better performance, higher job
satisfaction, and lower adaptability on the
job.
A. Neuroticism
B. Extraversion
C. Agreeableness
D. Conscientiousness
E. Openness
to experience
56. This
personality trait is associated with more helping behaviors, teamwork, and
difficulty in coping with
conflicts.
A. Neuroticism
B. Extraversion
C. Agreeableness
D. Conscientiousness
E. Openness
to experience
57. This
personality trait is associated with more creativity, effective leadership, and
a lower commitment to one's
employer.
A. Neuroticism
B. Extraversion
C. Agreeableness
D. Conscientiousness
E. Openness
to experience
58. What
are the most useful personality traits, in order, for selection
contexts?
A. Concientiousness, emotional stability,
extraversion
B. Emotional stability, conscientiousness, openness to
experience
C. Agreeableness, openness to experience, extraversion
D. Extraversion,
conscientiousness, emotional stability
59. Which
of the following is true regarding the use of personality tests in the
selection process?
A. Emotional stability is a much more valid
predictor of job performance when it is measured narrowly.
B. The aspect
of emotional stability that is more relevant to job performance is stress
proneness.
C. The Core Self-Evaluations Scale has not been shown to have
much validity in predicting job performance.
D. None of the above.
60. Which
of the following is true regarding research on the validity of personality
tests?
A. Conscientiousness predicts performance across occupational
groups.
B. Openness to experience does not predict training
performance.
C. Extraversion predicts job performance for most
jobs.
D. All of the above are true.
61. Which
of the following statements is false?
A. There is little evidence
that people fake their scores on personality tests in the hiring
contexts
B. When individuals believe their scores are being used for selection,
their observed scores tend to increase
C. Faking has a negative impact on
the validity of personality tests
D. None of the above statements is false
62. Measures
which assess an individual's capacity to function in a certain way are called
______.
A. interest inventories
B. ability
tests
C. personality tests
D. knowledge tests
63. Which
of the following cognitive abilities appear to reflect general
intelligence?
A. verbal abilities
B. quantitative
abilities
C. reasoning abilities
D. All of the above are correct
64. The
most widely used test of general mental ability for selection decisions is the
_____.
A. MMPI
B. Myers-Briggs
C. Wonderlic Personnel
Test
D. Job Characteristics Inventory
65. Which
of the following is true regarding cognitive ability
tests?
A. Cognitive ability tests are among the least valid methods
of selection.
B. Cognitive ability tests do not generalize to a wide range
of organizations and jobs.
C. There is reason to believe cognitive ability
tests will be associated with positive financial returns.
D. All of the
above are true.
66. Research
has shown that most of the effect of cognitive ability on performance is due to
the fact that intelligent employees have greater _____.
A. job
knowledge
B. presentation skills
C. social networking
capacity
D. diligence
67. The
biggest reason why cognitive ability tests are not more widely used is
_____________.
A. they are too expensive.
B. they are too
time-consuming.
C. they are difficult to administer.
D. they have an
adverse impact on minorities.
68. The
difference between black and white test takers on cognitive ability tests has
been _____.
A. demonstrated to be an artifact of question
wording
B. decreasing over time
C. lower when tests are given in an
open-ended format
D. both b and c
69. Research
studies have found ___________ support for the validity of job knowledge
tests?
A. relatively strong
B. no support
C. very
weak
D. some
70. The
process of administering tests that place applicants in hypothetical, job-related
situations and asking them to choose a course of action among several
alternatives is called _____________.
A. situational judgment
tests
B. behavioral implementation tests
C. work sample
tests
D. Job simulation tests
71. The
assessment method which involves the use of very realistic equipment and
scenarios to simulate actual tasks of a job is called a(n) ________
test.
A. job knowledge
B. psychomotor
C. high
fidelity
D. low fidelity
72. Work
samples and performance tests are useful for a broad range of jobs, although
they are difficult to use in __________ jobs.
A. customer
service
B. assembly
C. bank teller
D. none of the above
73. Situational
judgment tests ______.
A. have very high adverse
impact
B. involve applicants' descriptions of how they would behave in
work scenarios
C. are based on applicants' evaluations of
photographs
D. have very low validity
74. Which
of the following is true regarding integrity tests?
A. Their use has
declined in the past decade.
B. They are used to reduce employee
accidents.
C. They are usually paper-and-pencil or computerized
measures.
D. The construct of integrity is well understood.
75. Interest
inventories are designed to improve person job match by assessing applicant
preferences for different types of work. Research suggests that these
inventories ____.
A. are about as predictive of job performance as
ability tests
B. are more predictive of job performance than ability
tests
C. are not strongly predictive of job performance
D. are
prohibited by law
76. Which
of the following is a characteristic of a typical unstructured
interview?
A. It is usually carefully planned.
B. The
interviewer makes a quick and final evaluation of the candidate
C. It
consists of formal, objective questioning.
D. The interviewer is highly
prepared.
77. Which
of the following is a source of error or bias in unstructured
interviews?
A. Low reliability between
interviewers.
B. Nonverbal cues from interviewees influence interview
ratings.
C. Primacy effects.
D. All of the above are true.
78. The
first step of the structured interview process is
__________.
A. selecting and training
interviewers
B. developing the selection plan
C. consulting the job
requirements matrix
D. developing selection goals
79. The
type of structured interview that assesses an applicant's ability to project
what his/her behavior would be in the future is the ____________
interview.
A. situational
B. experience-based
C. projective
D. KSAO-based
80. Which
of the following is(are) true based on research regarding
interviews?
A. The validity of structured interviews is
low.
B. Situational interviews are less valid than job-related
interviews.
C. Panel interviews were less valid than individual
interviews.
D. All of the above are true.
81. The
correlation between structured interviews and cognitive ability tests is
____________.
A. positive
B. zero
C. moderately
negative
D. very negative
82. Applicants'
reactions to interviews tend to be _________.
A. very
favorable
B. somewhat favorable
C. neutral
D. somewhat
unfavorable
83. Selection
for team contexts ____.
A. is not much different than for selection
in general
B. should emphasize both interpersonal and self-management
KSAOs
C. should not involve members of the team, because that only leads to
resentment
D. all of the above
84. Discretionary
assessment methods are typically highly subjective and rely heavily on the
intuition of the decision maker.
True False
85. Contingent
assessment methods are always used in the selection process.
True False
86. Studies
suggest that drug users are no more likely to be involved in accidents or to be
injured at work.
True False
87. Individuals
who use drugs have been shown to have higher levels of absenteeism and
counterproductive work behaviors.
True False
88. Federal
law prohibits drug testing for a majority of
jobs.
True False
89. Drug
test results can be very accurate with low error rates, if the proper
procedures are followed.
True False
90. Some
organizations have begun to screen out those who smoke
tobacco.
True False
91. Drug
testing methods have become so accurate that it is no longer considered
necessary to use retesting to validate samples from an initial screening
test.
True False
92. Organizations
may make medical inquiries or require medical exams prior to making a job
offer.
True False
93. A
medical examination for employees is defined the same way as for job
applicants.
True False
94. Which
of the following is true regarding drug testing?
A. Applicants were
twice as likely to be tested for alcohol use as drug use.
B. The rate of
drug testing has declined slightly in recent years
C. Upper-level
employees are more likely to be tested than lower-level employees.
D. All
of the above are true.
95. Which
of the following is a recommendation for the use of drug testing
programs?
A. Drug testing should be done with all jobs.
B. Do
not inform applicants of the test results.
C. Provide rejected applicants
with an opportunity to appeal.
D. All of the above
96. Drug
tests are not common for many jobs because _____?
A. drug tests do
not "catch" many people
B. the law essentially bans drug tests
for all jobs not involving operating a vehicle
C. drug tests are extremely
expensive
D. the tests produce a massive number of false positive results
97. Organizations
may not ______ prior to making a job offer?
A. make medical
inquiries
B. conduct background checks
C. discuss job
responsibilities
D. none of the above
98. The
UGESP addresses the need to determine if a selection procedure is causing
adverse impact, and if so, the validation requirements for the
procedure.
True False
99. Any
selection procedure that has an adverse impact is deemed discriminatory by the
UGESP unless it has been shown to be
valid.
True False
100. There
three types of validity studies considered acceptable by the UGESP include face
validity, construct validity, and administrative
validity.
True False
101. It
is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities, unless the selection
procedure is job-related and consistent with business
necessity.
True False
102. An
organization may not require medical exams of an applicant, nor make a job
offer conditional, pending the results of a medical exam.
True False
103. There
are some jobs for which drug and alcohol testing is mandated by
law.
True False
104. Records
for medical exams of established employees must be kept in relative confidence,
although most jurisdictions allow for this information to be shared with
supervisors and members of the work group if the employer deems it
wise.
True False
105. The
best description of UGESP is that they are _____.
A. regulations for
drug testing in the workplace
B. a set of federal regulations related to
selection systems as covered by the Civil Rights Act
C. a set of
regulations relating only to disabled individuals
D. regulations that deal
only with gender equity and job selection
106. The
UGESP requires employers to ____.
A. keep records based on religion
and marital status for all employees
B. perform a local validation study
for every subgroup of employees
C. consider suitable alternative selection
procedures if one of the selection techniques has adverse impact
D. assess
employee history of drug abuse
107. Which
of the following items is a major principle pertaining to selection under the
Americans with Disabilities Act?
A. It is unlawful to screen out
individuals with disabilities unless the procedure is consistent with a
business necessity
B. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with
disabilities for any reason
C. It is unlawful for employers to require
employees to physical agility tests in a selection context
D. The employer
can retain the right to refuse to hire individuals with disabilities if
customers have a strong preference for not encountering disabled staff
108. Which
of the following inquiries can be made prior to giving a job
offer?
A. Questions about history of illegal drug
use
B. Psychological exams designed to detect mental illness
C. Oral
or written questions about the existence of a disability
D. None of the
above
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